Did Jesus Pray like a Muslim?

This image is making the rounds, and this argument has been made to me repeatedly by my Muslim friends.  They cite a portion of Matthew 26:39 to show that Jesus prayed in the posture of modern day Muslims.  The saddest part of this argument is that they think it validates Islam.

What happens when we look at Matthew 26:39 for ourselves?  What does the whole verse say?

Here is the ESV translation:
39 And going a little farther he fell on his face and prayed, saying, “My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will, but as you will.” 

Here is the NIV translation:
39 Going a little farther, he fell with his face to the ground and prayed, “My Father, if it is possible, may this cup be taken from me. Yet not as I will, but as you will.” 

Here is the KJV translation:
And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt. 

and here is the Greek:
καὶ προελθὼν μικρὸν ἔπεσεν ἐπὶ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ προσευχόμενος καὶ λέγων Πάτερ μου, εἰ δυνατόν ἐστιν, παρελθάτω ἀπ’ ἐμοῦ τὸ ποτήριον τοῦτο· πλὴν οὐχ ὡς ἐγὼ θέλω ἀλλ’ ὡς σύ.

What do we notice about this verse which should cause Muslims to stop using it?

the first thing Jesus says, in all of the English translations, is "My Father," or "O my Father," in the KJV.  What does the Greek say?  It says "Πάτερ μου," which translates as "Father of me."

here's a question for my Muslim friends:  Does Allah have a son?  Can anyone call Allah father?

Let me help you answer that.

Muhammad was asked what is the most important Sura in the entire Qur'an.  Sahih Muslim reports that Abu Al Darda narrated: "Say, He is Allah, The One, (Surah 112) equals a third of the Qur'an." reported by Al-Thirmidhi, and Al- Albani classified it as an authentic Hadith.

Let us, then, look at the entirety of Surah 112:

   1.      Say: He is Allah, the One and Only;
   2.      Allah, the Eternal, Absolute;
   3.      He begetteth not, nor is He begotten;
   4.      And there is none like unto Him.

and in the Arabic:



For more information on this Surah, you can read here to validate what I'm saying:
https://www.islamreligion.com/articles/2812/chapter-112/

So the question then becomes:  Where is the conflict between Matthew 26:39 and Surah 112?

Let us look again:
Matthew 26:39: And going a little farther he fell on his face and prayed, saying, “My Father,
Surah 112:3: He begetteth not, nor is He begotten;

How can Jesus call Allah his father, if Allah neither begets nor is begotten?  And since verse 3 is arguably the most important verse of the most important surah of the whole Qur'an, doesn't it make sense that it should say clearly what it means? 

If Matthew 26:39 is a reliable verse, then Jesus, the only sinless prophet of Islam (yes, according to the Qur'an, Jesus was sinless) commits Shirk, the worst possible sin. 

If Matthew 26:39 is not a reliable verse, why are Muslims citing portions of it as if it were evidence?